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« Some Markets Remain Reality-Based | Main | Bipolar Disorder? »

September 27, 2007

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I actually have a significant sweep into the Institutional / Primary at The Reserve. Late this summer, I scheduled withdrawals as aggressively as possible to relocate the funds into FDIC insured accounts. However, I have been trickling funds back into The Reserve after reading many reassurances about that company such as the founder's comments in the article above. The Reserve also posted several PDFs to their web site, one of which is a check list of hot-button items that they do not invest in, such as MBS, CDO, etc.. But I am still a bit uneasy as I recall the original PDF for that list headlined as being "DIRECT" exposure to those vehicles. That left me to wonder about indirect exposure, which might even be more scary since that fund is not FDIC insured (understanding that even FDIC coverage has its flaws). Though at present I see the PDF on their site now simple says "Reserve's Exposure to the Subprime Mortgage Market" without any caveats about indirect/direct. I still think they are an excellent company, but how far afield is "direct" vs "indirect" exposure in that biz?

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