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« The Song Remains the Same | Main | Media Appearance: Kudlow & Company (3/27/08) »

March 27, 2008

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I am somewhat lost on some of the points you seem to be making, and perhaps you can help me clarify them.


1)How is the Master Agreement that is used by the ISDA not a standardized contract? While it leaves open certain aspects of the contract that are fact specific to the future deals, the basic tenants are established and is binding and controls all future dealings that transgresses with the two parties As for the idea that one contract could be made that would and could deal with all the complexities of a contractual nature such is confusing to me… With the master agreement, all transactions between the two parties are allowed the exposures to be netted against one another, since the master agreement treats all subsequent contracts that are made with the parties as one binding agreement. This will help reduce your exposure to that specific counter-party, and especially in situations where the parties are engaged in numerous transactions that are different in nature but fall under the same agreement, “currency swaps, interest rate swaps, etc.” This along with the close out provisions that allows the cancellation on all future obligations of these positions help mitigate loses.

I cannot imagine a contract that is fluid enough to capture this, that and each subsequent agreement that the parties would reach would require subsequent contractual formation, and lack interdependence. Therefore failure in one is not grounds for cancellation of other subsequent ones.

2) As for the concern over the counter party, I am not sure why you failed to consider the collateral position most are obligated to post, or the right to the actual underlying asset that you are defaulting swapping against? I am not denying that failure of counter parties could lead to losses, but this would mitigate the aggregate amount of losses in most situations. The obvious downside would be the underlying company fails and their bond recovery is limited, and the counter party is connected and therefore fails along side them. Yet if you decide to take a hedging position against an Italian banks bond with that of another Italian bank, than obviously your reckless actions would cause any one to lose money. There is also the fear the credit even will happen prior to the daily margin posting, or a situation in which fear among the participants over the credit worthiness of the counterparty acts as a “Stag hunt” and sub-sequent closing out of your positions whether or not they are in the money would place a burden upon their available liquidity and push a rumor into the realm of reality.
In the end, while I am in no way denying that there is some risk it is difficult to ascertain to what extent any losses or exposure would be in these situations. From this I do not understand why use the total aggregate of swap contracts as a baseline for losses that might arise?

3) As for the article, I am not seeing it’s connection to the CDS market, so I was hoping you could elaborate. I was under the impression that the contractual relationships that the mono-line insurance companies enter are significantly different than those of simple swaps. Taken from MBIA testimony

“MBIA has a rigorous process for determining the amount of credit losses in our portfolio of financial guaranty policies and our CDS contracts (it must be remembered that our CDS have the character of financial guaranty insurance policies, not tradable CDS as transacted by most market participants)…It is important to note that MBIA’s obligation to pay claims on an insured issue is almost exclusively on an “as due” basis. Essentially this means that upon a default of an insured issue MBIA will pay principal and interest to the holder according the original schedule. Thus in the case of a 30-year bond, MBIA would be obligated to pay the principal and interest over the full 30-year life of the bond, and would not be required to pay off the full outstanding balance at the time it defaults. This is an important feature in all of MBIA’s insured exposures. It is designed to minimize liquidity exposure and prevent a “run on the bank. An insurer's exposure under an insurance policy or a credit default swap is virtually identical. Under either form there are no requirements to post collateral, nor any requirements or rights to accelerate payment against MBIA.”
www.mbia.com/investor/publications/MBIATestimony_02142008.pdf

You have to admit, this is significantly different than a CDS where liquidation or close out of the position is available upon credit default

That and monoline are attached to a conduit which provides mechanisms to further protect or at least mitigate the exposure to losses that arise from the defaulting underlying assets. Cashflow triggers and diversion mechanisms that provide some degree of protection for their positions is enough to question if a comparison between the two are called for.

I will thank you in advance for your consideration in this matter

ISDA's master agreements are primarily for plain vanilla currency or interest rate swaps. While these are OTC products, they are the most standardized. These master agreements are not applicable to credit default swaps or the various CDO's.

I guess the smart lawyers will want cash up front - or accept chickens and other goods in kind?

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